Can I sell part of a house if it is in a deed of gift without the consent of the owner of the other part of the house?



The author posted a question in Legal Advice

Can I sell part of a house if it is in a deed of gift without the consent of the owner of the other part of the house? and got a better answer

Response from
Read the privatization contract carefully. If it follows from the fact that the property is shared, then the brothers are coowners. Accordingly, each has the right of the first night. has the right of first refusal, which means that one co-owner, if he decides to sell, is obliged to offer another. The other must either write a refusal certified by a notary or to buy. If the renunciation is made out,you can sell to anyone,but at a price not lower than the one offered to the co-owner! Therefore, usually try to hammer out a phrase-at any price. From this hassle is easy go if there is a war and refusal is not expected alienate the shares by way of donation. Then the refusal from the co-owner is not required?

Response from 0[+++++]
Read the privatization agreement carefully. If it says that the property is joint and shared, then the brothers are coowners. Accordingly, each has the right of the first night. has the right of first refusal, which means that one co-owner, if he decides to sell, is obliged to offer another. The other must either write a refusal certified by a notary or to buy. If the renunciation is made out,you can sell to whomever you want,but at a price not lower than the one offered to the co-owner! Therefore, usually try to hammer out a phrase-at any price. From this hassle is easy go if there is a war and refusal is not expected alienate the shares by way of donation. Then a refusal from the co-owner is not required.

Response from 0[+++++]
You can.

Response from 0[++]
If the parts are isolated and they have different entrances, it's fine.

Response from 0[+++++]
I think you can. Probably need to have a separate entrance, etc.

Response from 0[+++++]
789-88-88 Any questions will be answered.

Response from 0[+++++]
It's his property. If he wants it, he eats it with porridge. If he wants it, he butters it. And he don't have to ask anybody. There is another nuance. The owner of the other half of the house has first right of purchase. That means that the seller must offer his brother to buy that half of the house at a price no higher than what he can realistically get from the other buyer. If the brother refuses to buy, he sells to anyone at his discretion.

Response from 0[+++++]
real estate ownership is different. it depends on how the privatization will be done. if it is not a joint common area you can. privatize your share and sell.

Response from 0[+++++]
You need to talk to a lawyer

 

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